Thursday, May 23, 2002



ChemStudy Semester 2 Final Review

1. A packet of energy of electromagnetic radiation is called
A) a wavelength B) a wave C) a photon D) a proton E) none of these


2. The lowest possible energy state of an atom is called its ______________ state.
A) excited B) base C) ground D) neutral E) none of these


3. The shape of an s orbital is
A) spherical D) conical shaped
B) dumbbell shaped E) none of these
C) donut shaped


4. The maximum number of electrons allowed in each of the p orbitals is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 18 E) none of these


5. Sodium has how many electrons in its outermost principal energy level?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 6 D) 8 E) 11


6. The electron configuration for the phosphorus atom is
A) 1s22s22p63s23p3 D) 1s22s22p63p5
B) 1s22s22p63s23s23p64s1 E)none of these
C) 1s22s22p63s5


7. Chemical bonds formed by the attraction of oppositely charged ions are called
A) covalent bonds D) ionic bonds
B) magnetic bonds E) none of these
C) coordinate bonds


8. The most electronegative element is
A) He B) F C) At D) Cs E) O


9. If atom X forms a diatomic molecule with itself, the bond is
A) ionic D) polar coordinate covalent
B) polar covalent E) none of these
C) nonpolar covalent


10. Which element or ion listed below has the electron configuration 1s22s22p6?
A) Na+ B) Al3+ C) F– D) Ne E) all of these


11. Magnesium reacts with sulfur to form
A) MgS B) MgS2 C) Mg2S D) Mg2S3 E) none of these


12. The formula of the compound formed in the reaction between lithium and sulfur is
A) LiS B) LiS2 C) Li2S3 D) Li2S E) none of these


13. A gas occupies a volume of 202 mL at a pressure of 505 torr. To what pressure must the gas be subjected in order to change the volume to 65.0 mL? Assume constant temperature.

A) 1570 torr B) 1280 torr C) 2457 torr D) 570 torr E) none of these


14. A helium balloon has a volume of 2.30 L at 23.5°C and a pressure of 1.00 atm at sea level. The balloon is released and floats upward. At a certain height the atmospheric pressure is 0.810 atm and the temperature is 12.0°C. Calculate the volume of the balloon.
A) 2.73 L B) 2.84 L C) 1.45 L D) 2.21 L E) none of these


15. A 6.5-L sample of nitrogen at 25°C and 1.5 atm is allowed to expand to 13.0 L. The temperature remains constant. What is the final pressure?
A) 0.063 atm B) 0.12 atm C) 0.75 atm D) 3.0 atm E) 0.38 atm


16. The lowest possible temperature which can be reached is
A) 0°C B) 273°C C) 273 K D) –273°C E) –273 K


17. If the temperature of an ideal gas is raised from 100°C to 200°C, while the pressure remains constant, the volume
A) doubles D) increases by a factor of 100
B) remains the same E) none of these
C) goes to 1/2 the original volume


18. Two moles of gas A spontaneously convert to three moles of gas B in a container where the temperature and pressure are held constant. The sample originally took up 10.2 L of volume. What is the new volume of the products?
A) 0.189 L B) 6.73 L C) 12.3 L D) 1.15 L E) 15.3 L


19. The normal freezing point of water is
A) 0°F B) 273 K C) 32°C D) 373°C E) none of these


20. The normal boiling point of water is
A) 0°F B) 32°F C) 273 K D) 373 K E) none of these


21. 12,500 J of energy is added to 2.0 mol (36 g) of H2O as an ice sample at 0°C. The mole heat of fusion is 6.02 kJ/mol. The specific heat of liquid water is 4.18 J/mol K. The molar heat of vaporization is 40.6 kJ/mol. The resulting sample contains which of the following?
A) only ice D) water and water vapor
B) ice and water E) only water vapor
C) only water


22. Calculate the quantity of energy required to change 3.00 mol of liquid water to steam at 100°C. The molar heat of vaporization of water is 40.6 kJ/mol.
A) 40.6 kJ B) 13.5 kJ C) 122 kJ D) 300 kJ E) none of these


23. The specific heat capacity of liquid water is 4.18 kJ/g °C. Calculate the quantity of energy required to heat 1.00 g of water from 26.5°C to 83.7°C.
A) 239 J B) 57.2 J C) 13.7 J D) 350. J E) none of these


24. Choose the state of water in which the water molecules are farthest apart on average.
A) steam (vapor) B) liquid C) ice (solid) D) all the same


25. The process of evaporation happens when which of the following occurs?
A) A solid becomes a liquid. D) A gas becomes a liquid.
B) A liquid becomes a solid. E) A solid becomes a gas.
C) A liquid becomes a gas.


26. Which of the following is not an example of spontaneous radioactive process?
A) alpha-decay D) autoionization
B) beta-decay E) electron capture
C) positron production


27. If a nucleus captures an electron, describe how the atomic number will change.
A) It will increase by one.
B) It will decrease by one.
C) It will not change because the electron has such a small mass.
D) It will increase by two.
E) It will decrease by two.


28. Polonium is a naturally radioactive element decaying with the loss of an alpha particle.

What is the second product of this decay?
A) B) C) D) E) none of these


29. Choose the particle having a relative mass of 1 amu and no charge.
A) alpha particle B) beta particle C) proton D) neutron E) none of these


30. The atomic particle having a mass of 1 amu and a charge of 1+ is
A) an electron B) a neutron C) an alpha particle D) a proton E) none of these


31. The cesium-131 nuclide has a half-life of 30 years. After 90 years, about 6 g remain. The original mass of the cesium-131 sample is closest to
A) 30 g B) 40 g C) 50 g D) 60 g E) 70 g




32. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is
A) that period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay.
B) the time at which the isotope becomes nonradioactive
C) that period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay.
D) the period of time it takes to reduce the radioactivity by 100%
E) none of the above


33. When the uranium-235 nucleus is struck with a neutron, the zinc-72 and samarium-160 nuclei are produced along with some neutrons. How many neutrons are produced?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6


34. One mole of each of the following compounds is added to water in separate flasks to make 1.0 L of solution. Which solution has the largest total ion concentration?
A) calcium carbonate D) silver chloride
B) potassium phosphate E) sodium chloride
C) aluminum hydroxide

35. In soda pop, CO2(g) is a ______________ and water is the ______________.
A) solute; solvent D) solute; solution
B) solvent; solute E) solvent; solution
C) solution; solute

36. The total mass of a solution is 153.4 g. The solvent mass is 125.2 g. What is the mass percent of the solute?
A) 81.62% D) 22.52%
B) 122.5% E) not enough information given
C) 18.38%


37. An oven-cleaning solution is 40.0% (by mass) NaOH. If one jar of this product contains 454 g of solution, how much NaOH does it contain?
A) 114 g B) 1.14 ´ 103 g C) 182 g D) 18.2 g E) none of these


38. A nitric acid solution containing 71.0% HNO3 (by mass) has a density of 1.42 g/mL. How many moles of HNO3 are present in 1.00 L of this solution?
A) 1.60 mol B) 16.0 mol C) 1.13 mol D) 11.3 mol E) none of these


39. A 1 molar solution of NaCl contains
A) 1 mol of solute per liter of solution
B) 1 liter of solute per mol of solution
C) 10.0 grams of solute per liter of solution
D) 1 mol of solute per kilogram of solution
E) 1 mol of solute per mole of solution


40. According to the Brønsted-Lowry definition, a base is
A) a substance that increases the hydroxide ion concentration in water
B) a substance that can accept a proton from an acid
C) a substance that can donate an electron pair to the formation of a covalent bond
D) a substance that increases the anion formed by the autoionization of the solvent
E) none of these


41. The conjugate base of a weak acid is
A) a strong base D) a weak acid
B) a weak base E) none of these
C) a strong acid


42. In deciding which of two acids is the stronger, one must know
A) the concentration of each acid solution D) all of the above
B) the pH of each acid solution E) both a and c
C) the equilibrium constant of each acid


43. Which has the higher [H+], 0.20 M NaOH or 0.10 M Ca(OH)2?
A) 0.20 M NaOH
B) 0.10 M Ca(OH)2
C) The [H+]'s are equal.
D) The answer depends on the volumes of the respective solutions.


44. A solution where [H+] = 10–13 M is ______________.
A) basic B) neutral C) acidic D) strongly acidic E) two of these


45. Calculate the [H+] in a solution that has a pH of 8.95.
A) 1.1 ´ 10–2 M D) 1.1 ´ 10–9 M
B) 8.9 ´ 10–6 M E) none of these
C) 1.0 ´ 10–7 M


46. Calculate the [OH–] in a solution that has a pH of 3.70.
A) 5.0 ´ 10–11 M D) 5.0 ´ 10–1 M
B) 1.0 ´ 10–7 M E) none of these
C) 5.0 ´ 10–4 M


47. A solution with a pH of 3 is how many times as acidic as a solution with a pH of 4?
A) 100 times as acidic D) 15 times as acidic
B) 80 times as acidic E) 12 times as acidic
C) 10 times as acidic


48. Chemists believe that chemical reactions occur because the molecules involved in the reaction ______________.
A) spontaneously break apart then recombine
B) are always unstable
C) exist only below a certain maximum temperature
D) collide with each other with enough energy to break chemical bonds
E) are moving so fast that the chance of interaction is very small




49. How many of the following are true?
I. At equilibrium, the concentrations of all reactants and products are equal.
II. At equilibrium, all products and reactants coexist.
III. At equilibrium the change in concentration over time for all reactants and products is zero.
IV. At equilibrium, the rates of the forward and reverse reactions are zero.
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4


50. Determine the equilibrium constant (units deleted) for the system N2O4(g) jl 2NO2(g) at 25°C. The equilibrium concentrations are shown here:
[N2O4] = 4.27 ´ 10–2 M [NO2] = 1.41 ´ 10–2 M
A) 0.330 B) 3.03 C) 0.660 D) 215 E) 0.00466


51. For the reaction of gaseous nitrogen with gaseous hydrogen to produce gaseous ammonia, the correct equilibrium expression is
A) B) C) D) E) none of these


52. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous equilibrium?
A) MgCO3(s) --------> MgO(s) + CO2(g) D) C(s) + CO2(g) --------> 2CO(g)
B) NaCl(s) --------> Na+(aq) + Cl–(aq) E) none of these
C) 3H2(g) + N2(g) -------->2NH3(g)


Use the following to answer questions 53-55:

The following question(s) refer to the equilibrium shown here:
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) -------à 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)


53. What would happen to the system if oxygen was added?
A) More ammonia would be produced.
B) The concentration of NO(g) would decrease.
C) The equilibrium would shift to the right.
D) The equilibrium would shift to the left.
E) Nothing would happen.


54. What would happen to the system if the total pressure was decreased?
A) Nothing would happen.
B) More oxygen would be produced.
C) The water vapor would become liquid water.
D) The ammonia concentration would increase.
E) The NO concentration will increase.







55. Given that the reaction is exothermic, what would happen if the temperature of the system were increased?
A) The equilibrium will shift to the left.
B) The equilibrium will shift to the right.
C) The NO concentration will remain constant but there will be more water vapor.
D) The equilibrium position will not change if heat is added.
E) none of these


56. Consider the following reaction:
Ba(s) + F2(g) -----------à BaF2
Which of the following statements is false?
A) The barium atom is gaining electrons; therefore, it is oxidized.
B) The fluorine atom is gaining electrons; therefore, it is oxidized.
C) The barium atom is losing electrons; therefore, it is oxidized.
D) The fluorine atom is losing electrons; therefore, it is reduced.
E) none of these


57. ______________ is a loss of electrons.
A) Reduction D) Galvanization
B) Neutralization E) None of these
C) Oxidation


58. In the reaction 2Ca(s) + O2(g) ® 2CaO(s), calcium is ______________.
A) reduced B) electrolyzed C) synthesized D) oxidized E) none of these


59. What is the oxidation state of Cl in NaClO3?
A) +1 B) +3 C) +5 D) –1 E) +7


60. For the reaction of sodium bromide with chlorine gas to form sodium chloride and bromine, the appropriation half-reactions are (ox = oxidation and re = reduction)
A) ox: CL2 + 2e– -----à2Cl– re: 2Br– -----à Br2 + 2e–
B) ox: 2Br– -----à Br2 + 2e– re: Cl2 + 2e– -----à 2Cl–
C) ox: Cl + + e– -----à Cl– re: Br -----à Br– + e–
D) ox: Br + 2e– -----à Br2– re: 2Cl– -----à Cl2 + 2e–
E) ox: 2Na+ + 2e– -----à 2Na re: 2Cl– -----à Cl2 + 2e–


61. A triple bond involves sharing ______________ electrons.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6


62. How many of the following apply to fibrous proteins?
I. Provide structural integrity and strength for many types of tissues.
II. Transport and store oxygen and nutrients.
III. Act as catalysts.
IV. Are the main components of muscle, hair, and cartilage.
V. Fight invasion of the body by foreign objects.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5


63. The condensation product of two amino acids is a(n)
A) peptide B) ketone C) ether D) ester E) alcohol


64. Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
A) structure D) energy transformation
B) catalysis E) All of these are functions of proteins.
C) oxygen transport


65. The element curium (Z = 242, A = 96) can be produced by positive-ion bombardment when an alpha particle collides with which of the following nuclei? Recall that a neutron is also a product of this bombardment.
A) B) C) D) E)


66. The cesium-131 nuclide has a half-life of 30 years. After 90 years, about 6 g remain. The original mass of the cesium-131 sample is closest to
A) 30 g B) 40 g C) 50 g D) 60 g E) 70 g


67. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is
A) that period of time in which 25% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay.
B) the time at which the isotope becomes nonradioactive
C) that period of time in which 50% of the original number of atoms undergoes radioactive decay.
D) the period of time it takes to reduce the radioactivity by 100%
E) none of the above


68. The iodine-131 nuclide has a half-life of 8 days. If you originally have a 625-g sample, after 2 months you will have approximately
A) 40 g B) 20 g C) 10 g D) 5 g E) less than 1 g


69. When the uranium-235 nucleus is struck with a neutron, the zinc-72 and samarium-160 nuclei are produced along with some neutrons. How many neutrons are produced?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6


70. When the palladium-106 nucleus is struck with an alpha particle, a proton is produced along with a new element. What is this new element?
A) cadmium-112 D) silver-109
B) cadmium-109 E) none of these
C) silver-108










71. Name the following molecule.


A) 2,2,3,5-tetramethyl-7-propyl-7-t-butyldecane
B) 2,4-dimethylhexane
C) 2,2,5,7,8,8-hexamethyl-3,3-dipropylnonane
D) isonanane
E) none of these



72. Name the following molecule.

A) 2,2,3,5-tetramethyl-7-propyl-7-t-butyldecane
B) 6-propyl-2,6-di-t-butylnonane
C) 2,2,5,7,8,8-hexamethyl-3,3-dipropylnonane
D) isonanane
E) none of these


73. Name the following molecule.

A) n-hexane D) methyl-diethylmethane
B) isohexane E) 3-methylpentane
C) 1,2,3-trimethylpropane


74. Name the following molecule.
CH3 — (CH2)7 — CH3
A) heptane B) hexane C) octane D) nonane E) decane


75. The general name given to hydrocarbons with double bonds is
A) alkenes D) unsaturated hydrocarbons
B) alkynes E) aromatic hydrocarbons
C) alkanes


Friday, March 15, 2002

This is due Wed. March 20, 2002. 100 points

Go to the following website: dbhs.wvusd.k12.ca.us/ChemTeamIndex.html
Go to the section on solutions.


1. Discuss the difference between a solution and a mixture.

2. Discuss the difference between a homogeneous and a heterogeneous mixture.

3. What are the two components of any solution?

4. Define molarity. What are the units?

5. Define molality. What are the units?

6. Work through the 8 examples of molarity problems. Do the 3 Practice Problems. Show your work.

7. Go to the molarity Worksheet. Work all 19 Problems. Show all work.

8. Go to the section on Dilution. Work through the examples. Work all 9 Practice problems. Show all work.

9. Go to the section on Molality. Work through the examples. Work all 3 Practice problems. Show all work.

10. Go to the section on Colligative Properties. Define osmosis. Define reverse osmosis. How are these processes related?

11. Work through the example problems on boiling point elevation. Explain how to use boiling point elevation to determine the molecular weight of a substance.

12. Read about the van 't Hoff Factor. Do the two van’t Hoff Factor problems. Show all work.

13. Work through the example problems on freezing point depression. Explain how to use freezing point depression to determine the molecular weight of a substance.

14. What is the dividing line (expressed in terms of molarity) between substances that are insoluble and soluble in water at 25C?

15. Summarize the 6 basic solubility rules that apply to substances dissolved in water.


Monday, February 25, 2002

Go to the following website:

http://www.chemtutor.com/gases.htm#third


This website provides an excellent review of the gas laws.
Read the section on “Grahams Law of Diffusion” (You will need this for problem #9.) The last section has 23 gas law problems. Do each problem. SHOW ALL WORK.
Note the answers are given so you can check your work.

Wednesday, February 20, 2002

Go to the folllowing website:http://chemed.chem.purdue.edu/genchem/topicreview/bp/ch4/gaslaws3.html

Start by clicking on Boyle's Law and answer the following questions. Show all work in a neat logical format.

1. What did Torricelli's experiment show?
2. Sketch a simple barometer and explain its operation.
3. State Boyle's Law in words and in symbols.
4. Do Practice Problem 3. Show all work. Check your answer.
5. State Amonton's Law.
6. Explain how to use Amonton's graph of Pressure vs. Temperature to obtain absolute zero.
7. How did Joseph Lambert (1779) define absolute zero.
8. Do practice problem 4. Show all work.
9. State Charles' law in words and symbols.
10. Explain why a hot air baloon rises.
11. Do practice problem 5. Show all work. Check your answer.
12. What was Gay-Lussac most important contribution to the study of gases?
13. State the law of combining volumes.
14. Do practice problem 6. Show all work. Check your answers.
15. Explain the link that Avagadro made between Gay Lussac's law of combining volumes and John Daltons atomic theory.
16. State Avogadro's hypothesis.
17. State the ideal gas equation.
18. Do practice problems 7-11. Show all work.
19. Describe the composition of the atmosphere.
20. What is Dalton's law of partial pressure?
21. Do practice problem 12. Show all work.
22. What is "vapor pressure"?
23. Do practice problem 13. Show all work.

Wednesday, January 23, 2002

Electrons in Atoms and Spectroscopy Internet Assignment

1. Go to website: http://dbhs.wvusd.k12.ca.us/ChemTeamIndex.html

2. Click on “Electrons in Atoms & Spectroscopy”

3. The Table of Contents includes 4 sections.

4. Read and take notes on each section.

5. Answer the following questions using complete sentences.

a. Discuss the relationship between emission and absorption spectra.
b. Discuss the relationship between line and continuous spectra.
c. Explain the “Balmer series”
d. What is a wave number? Derive an equation for the energy of a photon as a function of wave number.
e. Summarize the “assumptions” of the Bohr model.
f. List the four features of the Bohr model.


Tuesday, January 08, 2002

[1/8/2002 2:26:24 PM | Mr. Fasciano]
1/8/2002 1:34:27 PM | Mr. Fasciano]


1) The study of the composition and structure of matter is the domain of which field of science?

A) biology B) geology C) physics D) chemistry





2) Which of the following changes would be most appropriately considered in a study of chemistry, rather than any other science?

A) a rock melting as the result of being heated

B) a rock rolling down a hill

C) a rock breaking upon impact

D) a rock sinking in the water

E) a rock warming in the sun





3) Chemistry is chiefly concerned with the study of which of the following types of changes in substances?

A) changes in volume

B) changes in composition

C) changes in location

D) changes in amount

E) changes in shape





4) What is the first step of the scientific method?

A) reaching a conclusion

B) stating a theory

C) formulating a hypothesis

D) making an observation

E) conducting an experiment





5) A hypothesis is _____ .

A) an observation recorded from an experiment

B) a thoroughly tested model

C) a descriptive model for observations

D) a concise statement that summarizes the results of a wide variety of experiments





6) Matter is defined as anything that _____ .

A) has a definite volume B) has mass and takes up space

C) can be weighed on a balance D) has a fixed volume and weight





7) A substance that forms a vapor is generally in what physical state at room temperature?

A) gas

B) liquid

C) plasma

D) solid

E) liquid or solid





8) Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container?

A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) both B. and C.





9) Which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite volume?

A) solid B) liquid C) plasma D) gas





10) Which of the following materials is a pure substance?

A) diamond B) brass C) tea D) air E) gasoline





11) All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT _____.

A) melting point

B) color

C) hardness

D) explosiveness

E) mass





12) Which of the following is a physical change?

A) evaporation B) corrosion C) explosion D) food spoilage





13) Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?

A) liquid helium B) apple juice C) liquid oxygen D) mercury





14) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

A) beef stew

B) soil

C) sand and water

D) brine

E) raisin bread





15) Which of the following is a true statement about homogeneous mixtures?

A) They consist of two or more phases.

B) They can consist only of liquids.

C) They have compositions that never vary.

D) They are known as solutions.





16) Which of the following is a true statement about compounds?

A) They have properties similar to those of their constituent elements.

B) They can be physically separated into their constituent elements.

C) They are pure substances.

D) They have variable compositions.





17) The chemical formula of a compound indicates the _____.

A) three-dimensional structure of the compound

B) identity of the elements in the compound only

C) relative proportions of the elements in the compound

D) type and arrangement of the bonds in the compound





18) What happens to the individual atoms in a chemical reaction?

A) Some are created.

B) Some are destroyed and some are created.

C) They are rearranged.

D) Some are destroyed.





19) Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions?

A) The total mass of the reactants increases.

B) Water is given off.

C) The total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.

D) The total mass of the products is greater than the total mass of the reactants.





20) The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?

A) 1.54 x 10-10 m B) 1.54 x 1010 m C) 1.54 x 10-12 m D) 1.54 x 1012 m





21) What is the result of multiplying (2.5 x 1010 ) x (3.5 x 10-7 )?

A) 8.75 x 1017 B) 8.75 x 103 C) 8.75 x 10-3 D) 8.75 x 10-17





22) When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve?

A) accuracy B) reliability C) precision





23) In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit?

A) 3

B) 5

C) the 0 to the left of the decimal point

D) the 0 immediately to the left of the 3

E) There is no estimated digit in this measurement.





24) How many significant figures are there in the measurement 40 500 mg?

A) two

B) five

C) four

D) three

E) This cannot be determined.





25) What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?

A) 1050 L

B) 1.0 x 103L

C) 1040 L

D) 1.1 x 103 L

E) none of the above





26) Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits.

A) 12.7

B) 12.68

C) 13

D) 10 m

E) none of the above





27) Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits.

A) 11 mm2

B) 10 mm2

C) 11.0 mm2

D) 11.00 mm2

E) none of the above





28) When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in _____ .

A) the most precise measurement.

B) all of the measurements.

C) the least precise measurement.

D) the least and most precise measurements.





29) What is the quantity 78 liters expressed in cubic meters?

A) 0.78 m3

B) 78 000 m3

C) 0.078 m3

D) 78 000 000 m3

E) 0.000 078 m3





30) If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density?

A) The density decreases.

B) The density first increases, then decreases.

C) The density increases.

D) The density does not change.

E) The density first decreases, then increases.





31) What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL?

A) 479 mL B) 4.34 mL

C) 0.23 mL D) none of the above





32) The density is found by dividing _____.

A) volume by mass

B) mass by area

C) mass by length

D) area by mass

E) mass by volume





33) Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?

A) Kelvin B) Celsius C) Fahrenheit D) Joule





34) What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in ¶C?

A) 0¶C B) -173¶C C) -73¶C D) -273¶C E) -373¶C





35) What is the boiling point in kelvins of water at 1 atmosphere of pressure?

A) 0 K B) 373 K C) 100 K D) 473 K E) 273 K





36) What is the volume of 60.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL?

A) 60.0 mL B) 42 mL C) 8.6 x 10 to power of (1) mL D) 0.012 mL





37) How many significant figures are there in the conversion factor 100 cm/1 m?

A) four

B) three

C) two

D) an unlimited number

E) one





38) On a typical day you inhale about 1 x 104 liters of air. What conversion factor would you use to express the volume in cubic centimeters?

A) 1.0 x 102 cm2/1 L B) 1 L/1.0 x 103 cm3 C) 1 L/1.0 x 102 cm3 D) 1.0 x 103 cm3/1 L





39) What is the result of converting 0.04 kmol to centimoles?

A) 0.4 cmol

B) 4000 cmol

C) 4 cmol

D) 40 cmol

E) 40 000 cmol





40) If 20 gits equal 1 erb, and 1 futz equals 2 hews, and 10 erbs equal 1 futz, how many gits equal 5 hews?

A) 1000 gits B) 100 gits C) 500 gits D) 50 gits





41) Express the density 5.6 g/cm3 in kg/m3.

A) 0.000 005 6 kg3/m

B) 5 600 000 kg/m3

C) 0.0056 kg/m3

D) 5600 kg/m3

E) 560 kg/m3





42) How would the rate 60 m/s be expressed in km/hr?

A) 216 km/hr

B) 2.16 km/hr

C) 0.216 km/hr

D) 21 600 km/hr

E) 0.002 16 km/hr





43) A blacksmith has to put new shoes on a stable of 20 horses. Each shoe requires 3 nails. How can he or she calculate the number of nails that must be brought to the stable?

A) number of nails x 4 shoes/3 nails x 1 horse/4 shoes =

B) number of horses x 4 shoes/1 horse x 3 nails/1 shoe =

C) number of nails x 1 shoe/nails x 3 nails/1 shoe =

D) number of shoes x 1 horse/4 shoes x 3 nails/1 horse =





44) What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element?

A) an atom

B) a neutron

C) an electron

D) a proton

E) a molecule





45) Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?

A) Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios.

B) Atoms are always in motion.

C) Atoms of the same element are alike in mass and size.

D) All elements are composed of atoms.





46) What particles form the nucleus of an atom?

A) neutrons and electrons

B) electrons only

C) protons and neutrons

D) protons and electrons

E) None of the above





47) Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements?

A) Cathode rays were always accompanied by anode rays.

B) An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom.

C) Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles.

D) Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets.

E) Cathode rays are always made of electrons, regardless of the gas used.





48) Which hypothesis led to the discovery of the proton?

A) A neutral atom should have dozens of subatomic particles.

B) Cathode rays should be attracted to a positively-charged plate.

C) When a neutral hydrogen atom loses an electron, a positively-charged particle should remain.

D) A proton should be 1840 times heavier than an electron.

E) The nucleus of an atom should contain neutrons.





49) Select the correct statement about subatomic particles.

A) The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.

B) Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.

C) Electrons, protons, and neutrons all have the same mass.

D) Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.

E) Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.





50) As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atoms is believed to be true?

A) A model in which the nucleus is made of neutrons only

B) A model in which the protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom

C) A model in which the nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons

D) A model in which the region outside the nucleus is largely empty space in which the electrons are situated

E) A model in which the nucleus is made of electrons and protons.





51) In which of the following sets are the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of electrons given correctly?

A) Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons

B) Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons

C) In, 49 protons, 49 electrons

D) He, 4 protons, 4 electrons

E) F, 19 protons, 19 electrons





52) How are the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated?

A) add the mass number to the number of electrons

B) add the number of electrons and protons together

C) subtract the number of protons from the mass number

D) subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons





53) The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the _____.

A) mass number B) nucleus number

C) atomic mass D) atomic number





54) Isotopes of the same element have different _____.

A) numbers of electrons

B) numbers of neutrons

C) numbers of protons

D) atomic numbers

E) symbols





55) Consider an element Z that has two naturally occurring isotopes with the following percent abundances: the isotope with a mass number of 20 is 25% abundant; the isotope with a mass number of 22 is 75% abundant. What is the average atomic mass for element Z?

A) 42.0 g B) 20.5 g C) 2.0 g D) 21.5 g E) 21.0 g





56) The atomic mass of an element _____.

A) depends upon the number of isotopes of that element

B) depends upon the relative abundance of each isotope of the element

C) depends upon the mass of each isotope of that element

D) all of the above





57) What is each vertical column of elements in the periodic table called?

A) group or family B) list C) transition D) row





58) What type of ions have names ending in -ide?

A) only anions

B) only cations

C) only metalloid ions

D) only metal ions

E) only gaseous ions





59) What is the electrical charge of a cation?

A) a negative charge B) a positive charge

C) no charge D) None of the above





60) In which of the following sets is the number of electrons in each species the same?

A) F-, Cl-, Br-

B) Sr2+, Kr, Br-

C) Mg2+, O2-, Ne2+

D) Na+, K+, Rb+

E) Al3+, Cl-, Ar





61) In any chemical compound, the elements are always combined in the same proportion by _____.

A) density

B) mass

C) charge

D) volume

E) number of protons





62) The law of definite proportions applies to _____.

A) gases only

B) molecular compounds only

C) solids only

D) ionic compounds only

E) all compounds





63) Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?

A) N2O4 B) BaI2 C) Kr D) CS2 E) PCl3





64) Which of the following formulas represents a molecular compound?

A) BeF2 B) ZnO C) SO2 D) Mg3N2 E) Xe





65) In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly?

A) NH+4: ammonia; H+ : hydride

B) OH- : hydroxide; O2-: oxide

C) PO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: phosphate; PO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: phosphite

D) HSO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: bisulfate; HSO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: bisulfite

E) C2H3O with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: acetate; C2O with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: oxalite





66) An -ate or -ite at the end of a compound name usually indicates that the compound contains _____.

A) only two elements

B) fewer anions than cations

C) a polyatomic ion

D) neutral molecules

E) hydroxide or cyanide ions





67) What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite?

A) KHSO3 B) K2SO4 C) K2S D) KHSO4 E) K2SO3





68) Which of the following compounds contains the lead(IV) ion?

A) PbO2 B) PbCl2 C) Pb2O D) PbO E) Pb4O3





69) Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?

A) tin(IV) bromide, SnBr4

B) aluminum fluorate, AlF3

C) beryllium sulfide, BeS2

D) iron(II) oxide, Fe2O3

E) potassium chloride, K2Cl2





70) Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?

A) iron(III) phosphate, FePO4

B) magnesium dichromate, MgCrO4

C) lithium carbonate, LiCO3

D) potassium chlorate, K2(ClO3)2

E) ammonium sulfite, (NH4)2S





71) Which of the following shows both the correct formula and correct name of an acid?

A) HClO2, chloric acid

B) HNO2, hydronitrous acid

C) H2CO3, bicarbonic acid

D) H3PO4, phosphoric acid

E) HI, iodic acid





72) Consider a mystery compound having the formula MxTy. If the compound is not an acid, if it contains only two elements and if M is not a metal; which of the following is true about the compound?

A) It contains a polyatomic ion.

B) Its name ends in -ic.

C) It is a binary molecular compound.

D) Its name ends in -ite or -ate.

E) It is a binary ionic compound.





73) What SI unit is used to measure the number of representative particles in a substance?

A) kilogram B) mole C) kelvin D) ampere E) candela





74) How many moles of tungsten atoms are there in 4.8 x 1025 atoms of tungsten?

A) 8.0 moles

B) 8.0 x 10 to power of (2) moles

C) 1.3 x 10 to power of (-2) moles

D) 8.0 x 10 to power of (1) moles

E) 1.3 x 10 to power of (-1) moles





75) How many moles of silver atoms are there in 1.8 x 1020 atoms of silver?

A) 3.0 x 10-4 B) 3.0 x 102 C) 1.1 x 1044 D) 3.3 x 10-3





76) How many ammonium ions, NH with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and, are there in 5.0 mol (NH4)2S?

A) 6.0 x 1024 B) 3.0 x 1024 C) 1.5 x 1025 D) 6.0 x 1025 E) 3.4 x 102





77) Butanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. If 1.0 mol of butanol contains 6.0 x 1024 atoms of hydrogen, what is the subscript for the hydrogen atom in C4H?O?

A) 6 B) 1 C) 8 D) 10 E) 4





78) How many hydrogen atoms are in 5 molecules of isopropyl alcohol, C3H7O?

A) 35 x (6.02 x 1023) B) 5

C) 35 D) 5 x (6.02 x 1023)





79) Which of the following elements exists as a diatomic molecule?

A) aluminum B) neon C) nitrogen D) sulfur E) lithium





80) Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the gram atomic mass?

A) The gram atomic mass is the mass of 6.02 x 1023 atoms of any monatomic element.

B) The gram atomic mass is the mass of one mole of atoms.

C) The gram atomic mass is the number of grams of an element that is numerically equal to the atomic mass in amu.

D) The gram atomic mass is found by checking the periodic table.

E) The gram atomic mass is 12 g for magnesium.





81) What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mol C8H18?

A) 3.55 x 1024 g

B) 0.0512 g

C) 19.4 g

D) 673 g

E) 389 g





82) How many moles of CaBr2 are there in 5.0 grams of CaBr2?

A) 4.2 x 10-2 mol

B) 3.0 x 1024 mol

C) 2.5 x 10-2 mol

D) 1.0 x 103 mol

E) 4.0 x 101 mol





83) What is the percent composition of chromium in BaCrO4?

A) 20.5% B) 4.87% C) 54.2% D) 25.2% E) 9.47%





84) What is the mass of oxygen in 250 g of sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

A) 0.65 g B) 16 g C) 41 g D) 3.9 g E) 160 g





85) If 20.0 grams of Ca combines completely with 16.0 grams of S to form a compound, what is the percent composition of Ca in the compound?

A) 20.0% B) 44.4% C) 80.0% D) 55.6% E) 1.25%





86) What information is needed to calculate the percent composition of a compound?

A) the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its density

B) the density of the compound and Avogadro's number

C) the formula of the compound and the gram atomic mass of its elements

D) the formula of the compound and its density

E) the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its molar volume





87) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40% sulfur and 60% oxygen by weight?

A) SO2 B) SO C) S2O3 D) SO3 E) S6O4





88) What is the empirical formula of a substance that is 53.5% C, 15.5% H, and 31.1% N by weight?

A) C2H7N

B) CH4N7

C) C3HN2

D) C4H14N2

E) C4.5H15.5N2.2





89) Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning empirical and molecular formulas?

A) The empirical formula of a compound can be triple its molecular formula.

B) Several compounds can have the same empirical formula, but have different molecular formulas.

C) If the molecular formula of hydrogen peroxide is H2O2, its empirical formula is HO.

D) The molecular formula of a compound can be some whole-number multiple of its empirical formula.

E) The molecular formula of a compound can be the same as its empirical formula.





90) What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?
Al2(SO4)3(aq) + KOH(aq) rightarrow Al(OH)3(aq) + K2SO4(aq)

A) 4,6,2,3 B) 2,3,1,1 C) 1,3,2,3 D) 2,12,4,6 E) 1,6,2,3





91) What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?
Cr(s) + Fe(NO3)2(aq) rightarrow Fe(s) + Cr(NO3)3(aq)

A) 4,6,6,2 B) 2,3,1,2 C) 1,3,3,1 D) 2,3,3,2 E) 2,3,2,3





92) When the equation, Fe + Cl2 rightarrow FeCl3, is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl2?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1





93) Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning what happens in all chemical reactions?

A) New atoms are formed as products.

B) The starting materials are named reactants.

C) The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed.

D) The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed.

E) In a word equation representing a chemical reaction, the reactants are written on the left and the products on the right.





94) A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following?

A) the physical states of the substances

B) the reactants on the left, the products on the right

C) the relative amounts of reactants and products

D) the correct formulas of the reactants and products

E) an arrow connecting the reactants to the products





95) Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy the _____.

A) law of conservation of mass B) principle of Avogadro

C) law of multiple proportions D) law of definite proportions





96) In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of _____.

A) atoms

B) molecules

C) coefficients

D) subscripts

E) moles





97) When potassium hydroxide and barium chloride react, potassium chloride and barium hydroxide are formed. The balanced equation for this reaction is _____.

A) KOH + BaCl rightarrow KCl + BaOH

B) 2KOH + BaCl2 rightarrow 2KCl + Ba(OH)2

C) KOH + BaCl2 rightarrow KCl2 + BaOH

D) 2KOH + 2BaCl2 rightarrow 2KCl2 + 2Ba(OH)2

E) KH + BaCl rightarrow KCl + BaH





98) If a combination reaction takes place between potassium and chlorine, what is the product?

A) K2Cl B) KCl C) KCl2 D) PCl E) PCl2





99) Write a balanced equation to represent the decomposition of lead(IV) oxide.

A) 2PbO rightarrow 2Pb + O2

B) PbO2 rightarrow Pb + 2O

C) Pb2O rightarrow 2Pb + O

D) PbO2 rightarrow Pb + O2

E) PbO rightarrow Pb + O2





100) Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the decomposition of a simple binary compound?

A) The reactant could be an ionic or a molecular compound.

B) The products are the constituent elements.

C) The reactant is a single substance.

D) The products are unpredictable.

E) Energy is usually required.





101) In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is _____.

A) hydrogen

B) a metal

C) oxygen

D) a binary ionic compound

E) nitrogen





102) The calculation of quantities in chemical equations is called _____.

A) percent composition

B) stoichiometry

C) percent yield

D) dimensional analysis

E) accuracy and precision





103) What is conserved in the reaction shown below?
H2(g) + Cl2(g) Â 2HCl(g)

A) only mass, moles, and molecules

B) only mass, moles, molecules and volume

C) only mass

D) only mass and moles





104) In every chemical reaction, _____.

A) mass and molecules are conserved

B) moles and molecules are conserved

C) moles and liters are conserved

D) mass and atoms are conserved

E) mass and liters are conserved





105) Which of these is an INCORRECT interpretation of this balanced equation?
2S(s) + 3O2(g) Â 2SO3(g)

A) 2 mol S + 3 mol O2 Â 2 mol SO3

B) 2 g S + 3 g O2 Â 2 g SO3

C) 2 atoms S + 3 molecules O2 Â 2 molecules SO3

D) none of the above





106) How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) Â 3Fe(s) + Al2O3(s)

A) 1.2 mol B) 1.6 mol C) 0.8 mol D) 4.8 mol E) 2.4 mol





107) How many moles of glucose, C6H12O6, can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available?
C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) Â 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

A) 301 mol B) 0.938 mol C) 1.67 mol D) 53.3 mol E) 60.0 mol





108) Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum?
2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) Â Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)

A) 22.5 mol B) 2710 mol C) 10.0 mol D) 15.0 mol E) 0.100 mol





109) When glucose is consumed it reacts with oxygen in the body to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy. How many grams of carbon dioxide would be produced if 45 g of C6H12O6completely reacted with oxygen?

A) 66 g B) 12 000 g C) 11 g D) 1.8 g E) 1.5 g





110) How many moles of H3PO4 are produced when 71.0 g P4O10 reacts completely to form H3PO4?
P4O10(s) + 6H2O(l) Â 4H3PO4(aq)

A) 0.063 5 mol

B) 16.0 mol

C) 1.00 mol

D) 4.00 mol

E) 98.0 mol





111) The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO2 is formed?
2Pb(NO3)2(s) Â 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

A) 2.00 g B) 32.0 g C) 2.88 g D) 1.00 g E) 46.0 g





112) How many grams of beryllium are needed to produce 36.0 g of hydrogen? (Assume an excess of water.)
Be(s) + 2H2O(l) Â Be(OH)2 (aq) + H2(g)

A) 4.00 g B) 648 g C) 162 g D) 324 g E) 36.0 g





113) Metallic copper is formed when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate. How many grams of metallic copper can be obtained when 54.0 g of Al reacts with 319 g of CuSO4?
2Al + 3CuSO4 Â Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu

A) 21.2 g B) 381 g C) 162 g D) 957 g E) 127 g





114) Lead nitrate can be decomposed by heating. What is the percent yield of the decomposition reaction if 9.9 g Pb(NO3)2 is heated to give 5.5 g of PbO?
2Pb(NO3)2(s) Â 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

A) 67% B) 56% C) 82% D) 44% E) 18%





115) When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up is called the _____.

A) limiting reagent

B) catalytic reagent

C) excess reagent

D) determining reagent

E) reactive reagent





116) When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that will form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the _____.

A) minimum yield

B) theoretical yield

C) percent composition

D) actual yield

E) percent yield





117) For a given chemical reaction, the theoretical yield is _____ greater than the actual yield.

A) always B) never C) sometimes





118) Which of the following is not a reason why actual yield is less than theoretical yield?

A) impure reactants present B) loss of product during purification

C) competing side reactions D) conservation of mass





119) How many joules are there in 148 calories? (1 cal = 4.18 J)

A) 6.61 J B) 35.4 J C) 148 J D) 3320 J E) 619 J





120) How much heat does it take to warm 16.0 g of pure water from 90.0¶C to 100.0¶C? (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g x ¶C)

A) 66.9 joules B) 669 joules C) 16.0 joules D) 160 joules





121) When 45 g of an alloy is dropped into 100.0 g of water at 25¶C, the final temperature is 37¶C. What is the specific heat of the alloy?

A) 0.423 B) 9.88 C) 48.8 D) 1.77





122) What is the specific heat of olive oil if it takes approximately 420 J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 g of olive oil by 30¶C?

A) equal to the specific heat of water B) greater than the specific heat of water

C) less than the specific heat of water D) Not enough information given.





123) When cooking food with natural gas, the energy comes from _____.

A) kinetic energy in the gas

B) the volume of the gas

C) chemical potential energy of the gas molecules

D) the pressure of the gas





124) A piece of metal is heated, then submerged in cool water. Which statement below describes what happens?

A) The temperature of the metal will increase.

B) The temperature of the water will increase and the temperature of the metal will decrease.

C) The temperature of the water will decrease.

D) The temperature of the water will decrease and the temperature of the metal will increase.

E) The temperature of the water will increase.





125) Two objects are sitting next to each other in direct sunlight. Object A gets hotter than object B.

A) Both objects have the same specific heat.

B) Object A has a higher specific heat than object B.

C) Object A has a lower specific heat than object B.







1) Answer: D





2) Answer: A





3) Answer: B





4) Answer: D





5) Answer: C





6) Answer: B





7) Answer: E





8) Answer: C





9) Answer: A





10) Answer: A





11) Answer: D





12) Answer: A





13) Answer: B





14) Answer: D





15) Answer: D





16) Answer: C





17) Answer: C





18) Answer: C





19) Answer: C





20) Answer: A





21) Answer: B





22) Answer: A





23) Answer: A





24) Answer: D





25) Answer: B





26) Answer: A





27) Answer: A





28) Answer: C





29) Answer: C





30) Answer: C





31) Answer: B





32) Answer: E





33) Answer: A





34) Answer: D





35) Answer: B





36) Answer: C





37) Answer: D





38) Answer: D





39) Answer: B





40) Answer: C





41) Answer: D





42) Answer: A





43) Answer: B





44) Answer: A





45) Answer: B





46) Answer: C





47) Answer: E





48) Answer: C





49) Answer: A





50) Answer: D





51) Answer: C





52) Answer: C





53) Answer: A





54) Answer: B





55) Answer: D





56) Answer: D





57) Answer: A





58) Answer: A





59) Answer: B





60) Answer: B





61) Answer: B





62) Answer: E





63) Answer: B





64) Answer: C





65) Answer: B





66) Answer: C





67) Answer: E





68) Answer: A





69) Answer: A





70) Answer: A





71) Answer: D





72) Answer: C





73) Answer: B





74) Answer: D





75) Answer: A





76) Answer: A





77) Answer: D





78) Answer: C





79) Answer: C





80) Answer: E





81) Answer: D





82) Answer: C





83) Answer: A





84) Answer: E





85) Answer: D





86) Answer: C





87) Answer: D





88) Answer: A





89) Answer: A





90) Answer: E





91) Answer: D





92) Answer: A





93) Answer: A





94) Answer: C





95) Answer: A





96) Answer: A





97) Answer: B





98) Answer: B





99) Answer: D





100) Answer: D





101) Answer: C





102) Answer: B





103) Answer: B





104) Answer: D





105) Answer: B





106) Answer: C





107) Answer: C





108) Answer: A





109) Answer: A





110) Answer: C





111) Answer: A





112) Answer: C





113) Answer: E





114) Answer: C





115) Answer: A





116) Answer: B





117) Answer: A





118) Answer: D





119) Answer: E





120) Answer: B





121) Answer: D





122) Answer: C





123) Answer: C





124) Answer: B





125) Answer: C




[edit]
[1/7/2002 2:02:28 PM | Mr. Fasciano]

The following questions are similar to questions on the final exam. You should work each one out and DON'T JUST MEMORIZE ANSWERS.


1. It is estimated that uranium is relatively common in the earth's crust, occurring in amounts of 4 g/metric ton.
A metric ton is 1000 kg. At this concentration, what mass of uranium is present in 1.0 mg of the earth's crust?
A) 4 nanograms
B) 4 micrograms
C) 4 milligrams
D) 4 ´ 10–5 g
E) 4 centigrams


2. Which of the following metric relationships is incorrect?
A) 1 microliter = 10–6 liters
B) 1 megagram = 106 grams
C) 1 millimeter = 103 meters
D) 1 kilogram = 103 grams
E) 100 centimeters = 1 meter


3. A set of tested hypotheses that gives an overall explanation of some natural phenomenon is called a(n)
A) observation.
B) measurement.
C) theory.
D) natural law.
E) experiment.


4. Express 784000000 in exponential notation.
A) 7.84 ´ 106
B) 7.84 ´ 108
C) 78.4 ´ 107
D) 784 ´ 106
E) 784 ´ 107


5. A titration was performed to find the concentration of hydrochloric acid with the following results:
Trial Molarity
1 1.25 ± 0.01
2 1.24 ± 0.01
3 1.26 ± 0.01
The actual concentration of HCl was determined to be 1.000 M; the results of the titration are:
A) both accurate and precise.
B) accurate but imprecise.
C) precise but inaccurate.
D) both inaccurate and imprecise.
E) accuracy and precision are impossible to determine with the available information.


6. The amount of uncertainty in a measured quantity is determined by:
A) both the skill of the observer and the limitations of the measuring instrument.
B) neither the skill of the observer nor the limitations of the measuring instrument.
C) the limitations of the measuring instrument only.
D) the skill of the observer only.


7. A scientist obtains the number 1250.37986 on a calculator. If this number actually has four (4) significant figures, how should it be written?
A) 1251
B) 1250.3799
C) 1250.4
D) 1.250 ´ 103
E) 1.250 ´ 10–3


8. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.0322?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
E) 0


9. A piece of indium with a mass of 16.6 g is submerged in 46.3 cm3 of water in a graduated cylinder. The water level increases to 48.6 cm3. The correct value for the density of indium from these data is:
A) 7.217 g/cm3
B) 7.2 g/cm3
C) 0.14 g/cm3
D) 0.138 g/cm3
E) more than 0.1 g/cm3 away from any of these values.


10. A metric unit for mass is
A) pound.
B) kilogram.
C) ton.
D) ounce.
E) meter.


11. Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following:

A) 17.5
B) 18
C) 17
D) 20
E) 17.48


12. Convert 974036 mm to km.
A) 9744036 km
B) 974.036 km
C) 974036000 km
D) 0.000974036 km
E) 0.974036 km


13. The volume of 65 L equals
A) 65 dm3
B) 65000 cm3
C) 650 dm3
D) 650 cm3
E) 65 dm3 and 65000 cm3


14. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.0006042?
A) 7
B) 3
C) 8
D) 4
E) 0


15. Convert 16.8 lb to g. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 762.0 g
B) 3.70 ´ 104 g
C) 76.2 g
D) 7621 g
E) 7620 g





[edit]
[1/8/2002 1:34:27 PM | Mr. Fasciano]


1) The study of the composition and structure of matter is the domain of which field of science?

A) biology B) geology C) physics D) chemistry





2) Which of the following changes would be most appropriately considered in a study of chemistry, rather than any other science?

A) a rock melting as the result of being heated

B) a rock rolling down a hill

C) a rock breaking upon impact

D) a rock sinking in the water

E) a rock warming in the sun





3) Chemistry is chiefly concerned with the study of which of the following types of changes in substances?

A) changes in volume

B) changes in composition

C) changes in location

D) changes in amount

E) changes in shape





4) What is the first step of the scientific method?

A) reaching a conclusion

B) stating a theory

C) formulating a hypothesis

D) making an observation

E) conducting an experiment





5) A hypothesis is _____ .

A) an observation recorded from an experiment

B) a thoroughly tested model

C) a descriptive model for observations

D) a concise statement that summarizes the results of a wide variety of experiments





6) Matter is defined as anything that _____ .

A) has a definite volume B) has mass and takes up space

C) can be weighed on a balance D) has a fixed volume and weight





7) A substance that forms a vapor is generally in what physical state at room temperature?

A) gas

B) liquid

C) plasma

D) solid

E) liquid or solid





8) Which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container?

A) solid B) liquid C) gas D) both B. and C.





9) Which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite volume?

A) solid B) liquid C) plasma D) gas





10) Which of the following materials is a pure substance?

A) diamond B) brass C) tea D) air E) gasoline





11) All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT _____.

A) melting point

B) color

C) hardness

D) explosiveness

E) mass





12) Which of the following is a physical change?

A) evaporation B) corrosion C) explosion D) food spoilage





13) Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?

A) liquid helium B) apple juice C) liquid oxygen D) mercury





14) Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?

A) beef stew

B) soil

C) sand and water

D) brine

E) raisin bread





15) Which of the following is a true statement about homogeneous mixtures?

A) They consist of two or more phases.

B) They can consist only of liquids.

C) They have compositions that never vary.

D) They are known as solutions.





16) Which of the following is a true statement about compounds?

A) They have properties similar to those of their constituent elements.

B) They can be physically separated into their constituent elements.

C) They are pure substances.

D) They have variable compositions.





17) The chemical formula of a compound indicates the _____.

A) three-dimensional structure of the compound

B) identity of the elements in the compound only

C) relative proportions of the elements in the compound

D) type and arrangement of the bonds in the compound





18) What happens to the individual atoms in a chemical reaction?

A) Some are created.

B) Some are destroyed and some are created.

C) They are rearranged.

D) Some are destroyed.





19) Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions?

A) The total mass of the reactants increases.

B) Water is given off.

C) The total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.

D) The total mass of the products is greater than the total mass of the reactants.





20) The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?

A) 1.54 x 10-10 m B) 1.54 x 1010 m C) 1.54 x 10-12 m D) 1.54 x 1012 m





21) What is the result of multiplying (2.5 x 1010 ) x (3.5 x 10-7 )?

A) 8.75 x 1017 B) 8.75 x 103 C) 8.75 x 10-3 D) 8.75 x 10-17





22) When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or reliability improve?

A) accuracy B) reliability C) precision





23) In the measurement 0.503 L, which digit is the estimated digit?

A) 3

B) 5

C) the 0 to the left of the decimal point

D) the 0 immediately to the left of the 3

E) There is no estimated digit in this measurement.





24) How many significant figures are there in the measurement 40 500 mg?

A) two

B) five

C) four

D) three

E) This cannot be determined.





25) What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?

A) 1050 L

B) 1.0 x 103L

C) 1040 L

D) 1.1 x 103 L

E) none of the above





26) Express the sum of 7.68 m and 5.0 m using the correct number of significant digits.

A) 12.7

B) 12.68

C) 13

D) 10 m

E) none of the above





27) Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of significant digits.

A) 11 mm2

B) 10 mm2

C) 11.0 mm2

D) 11.00 mm2

E) none of the above





28) When multiplying and dividing measured quantities, the number of significant figures in the result should be equal to the number of significant figures in _____ .

A) the most precise measurement.

B) all of the measurements.

C) the least precise measurement.

D) the least and most precise measurements.





29) What is the quantity 78 liters expressed in cubic meters?

A) 0.78 m3

B) 78 000 m3

C) 0.078 m3

D) 78 000 000 m3

E) 0.000 078 m3





30) If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its density?

A) The density decreases.

B) The density first increases, then decreases.

C) The density increases.

D) The density does not change.

E) The density first decreases, then increases.





31) What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL?

A) 479 mL B) 4.34 mL

C) 0.23 mL D) none of the above





32) The density is found by dividing _____.

A) volume by mass

B) mass by area

C) mass by length

D) area by mass

E) mass by volume





33) Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?

A) Kelvin B) Celsius C) Fahrenheit D) Joule





34) What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in ¶C?

A) 0¶C B) -173¶C C) -73¶C D) -273¶C E) -373¶C





35) What is the boiling point in kelvins of water at 1 atmosphere of pressure?

A) 0 K B) 373 K C) 100 K D) 473 K E) 273 K





36) What is the volume of 60.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL?

A) 60.0 mL B) 42 mL C) 8.6 x 10 to power of (1) mL D) 0.012 mL





37) How many significant figures are there in the conversion factor 100 cm/1 m?

A) four

B) three

C) two

D) an unlimited number

E) one





38) On a typical day you inhale about 1 x 104 liters of air. What conversion factor would you use to express the volume in cubic centimeters?

A) 1.0 x 102 cm2/1 L B) 1 L/1.0 x 103 cm3 C) 1 L/1.0 x 102 cm3 D) 1.0 x 103 cm3/1 L





39) What is the result of converting 0.04 kmol to centimoles?

A) 0.4 cmol

B) 4000 cmol

C) 4 cmol

D) 40 cmol

E) 40 000 cmol





40) If 20 gits equal 1 erb, and 1 futz equals 2 hews, and 10 erbs equal 1 futz, how many gits equal 5 hews?

A) 1000 gits B) 100 gits C) 500 gits D) 50 gits





41) Express the density 5.6 g/cm3 in kg/m3.

A) 0.000 005 6 kg3/m

B) 5 600 000 kg/m3

C) 0.0056 kg/m3

D) 5600 kg/m3

E) 560 kg/m3





42) How would the rate 60 m/s be expressed in km/hr?

A) 216 km/hr

B) 2.16 km/hr

C) 0.216 km/hr

D) 21 600 km/hr

E) 0.002 16 km/hr





43) A blacksmith has to put new shoes on a stable of 20 horses. Each shoe requires 3 nails. How can he or she calculate the number of nails that must be brought to the stable?

A) number of nails x 4 shoes/3 nails x 1 horse/4 shoes =

B) number of horses x 4 shoes/1 horse x 3 nails/1 shoe =

C) number of nails x 1 shoe/nails x 3 nails/1 shoe =

D) number of shoes x 1 horse/4 shoes x 3 nails/1 horse =





44) What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element?

A) an atom

B) a neutron

C) an electron

D) a proton

E) a molecule





45) Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?

A) Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number ratios.

B) Atoms are always in motion.

C) Atoms of the same element are alike in mass and size.

D) All elements are composed of atoms.





46) What particles form the nucleus of an atom?

A) neutrons and electrons

B) electrons only

C) protons and neutrons

D) protons and electrons

E) None of the above





47) Why did J. J. Thomson reason that electrons must be a part of the atoms of all elements?

A) Cathode rays were always accompanied by anode rays.

B) An electron is 2000 times lighter than a hydrogen atom.

C) Cathode rays are negatively-charged particles.

D) Cathode rays can be deflected by magnets.

E) Cathode rays are always made of electrons, regardless of the gas used.





48) Which hypothesis led to the discovery of the proton?

A) A neutral atom should have dozens of subatomic particles.

B) Cathode rays should be attracted to a positively-charged plate.

C) When a neutral hydrogen atom loses an electron, a positively-charged particle should remain.

D) A proton should be 1840 times heavier than an electron.

E) The nucleus of an atom should contain neutrons.





49) Select the correct statement about subatomic particles.

A) The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.

B) Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle.

C) Electrons, protons, and neutrons all have the same mass.

D) Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle.

E) Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle.





50) As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of the atoms is believed to be true?

A) A model in which the nucleus is made of neutrons only

B) A model in which the protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the atom

C) A model in which the nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons

D) A model in which the region outside the nucleus is largely empty space in which the electrons are situated

E) A model in which the nucleus is made of electrons and protons.





51) In which of the following sets are the symbol of the element, the number of protons, and the number of electrons given correctly?

A) Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons

B) Cs, 55 protons, 132.9 electrons

C) In, 49 protons, 49 electrons

D) He, 4 protons, 4 electrons

E) F, 19 protons, 19 electrons





52) How are the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated?

A) add the mass number to the number of electrons

B) add the number of electrons and protons together

C) subtract the number of protons from the mass number

D) subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons





53) The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the _____.

A) mass number B) nucleus number

C) atomic mass D) atomic number





54) Isotopes of the same element have different _____.

A) numbers of electrons

B) numbers of neutrons

C) numbers of protons

D) atomic numbers

E) symbols





55) Consider an element Z that has two naturally occurring isotopes with the following percent abundances: the isotope with a mass number of 20 is 25% abundant; the isotope with a mass number of 22 is 75% abundant. What is the average atomic mass for element Z?

A) 42.0 g B) 20.5 g C) 2.0 g D) 21.5 g E) 21.0 g





56) The atomic mass of an element _____.

A) depends upon the number of isotopes of that element

B) depends upon the relative abundance of each isotope of the element

C) depends upon the mass of each isotope of that element

D) all of the above





57) What is each vertical column of elements in the periodic table called?

A) group or family B) list C) transition D) row





58) What type of ions have names ending in -ide?

A) only anions

B) only cations

C) only metalloid ions

D) only metal ions

E) only gaseous ions





59) What is the electrical charge of a cation?

A) a negative charge B) a positive charge

C) no charge D) None of the above





60) In which of the following sets is the number of electrons in each species the same?

A) F-, Cl-, Br-

B) Sr2+, Kr, Br-

C) Mg2+, O2-, Ne2+

D) Na+, K+, Rb+

E) Al3+, Cl-, Ar





61) In any chemical compound, the elements are always combined in the same proportion by _____.

A) density

B) mass

C) charge

D) volume

E) number of protons





62) The law of definite proportions applies to _____.

A) gases only

B) molecular compounds only

C) solids only

D) ionic compounds only

E) all compounds





63) Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound?

A) N2O4 B) BaI2 C) Kr D) CS2 E) PCl3





64) Which of the following formulas represents a molecular compound?

A) BeF2 B) ZnO C) SO2 D) Mg3N2 E) Xe





65) In which of the following are the symbol and name for the ion given correctly?

A) NH+4: ammonia; H+ : hydride

B) OH- : hydroxide; O2-: oxide

C) PO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: phosphate; PO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: phosphite

D) HSO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: bisulfate; HSO with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: bisulfite

E) C2H3O with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: acetate; C2O with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and: oxalite





66) An -ate or -ite at the end of a compound name usually indicates that the compound contains _____.

A) only two elements

B) fewer anions than cations

C) a polyatomic ion

D) neutral molecules

E) hydroxide or cyanide ions





67) What is the correct formula for potassium sulfite?

A) KHSO3 B) K2SO4 C) K2S D) KHSO4 E) K2SO3





68) Which of the following compounds contains the lead(IV) ion?

A) PbO2 B) PbCl2 C) Pb2O D) PbO E) Pb4O3





69) Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?

A) tin(IV) bromide, SnBr4

B) aluminum fluorate, AlF3

C) beryllium sulfide, BeS2

D) iron(II) oxide, Fe2O3

E) potassium chloride, K2Cl2





70) Which set of chemical name and chemical formula for the same compound is correct?

A) iron(III) phosphate, FePO4

B) magnesium dichromate, MgCrO4

C) lithium carbonate, LiCO3

D) potassium chlorate, K2(ClO3)2

E) ammonium sulfite, (NH4)2S





71) Which of the following shows both the correct formula and correct name of an acid?

A) HClO2, chloric acid

B) HNO2, hydronitrous acid

C) H2CO3, bicarbonic acid

D) H3PO4, phosphoric acid

E) HI, iodic acid





72) Consider a mystery compound having the formula MxTy. If the compound is not an acid, if it contains only two elements and if M is not a metal; which of the following is true about the compound?

A) It contains a polyatomic ion.

B) Its name ends in -ic.

C) It is a binary molecular compound.

D) Its name ends in -ite or -ate.

E) It is a binary ionic compound.





73) What SI unit is used to measure the number of representative particles in a substance?

A) kilogram B) mole C) kelvin D) ampere E) candela





74) How many moles of tungsten atoms are there in 4.8 x 1025 atoms of tungsten?

A) 8.0 moles

B) 8.0 x 10 to power of (2) moles

C) 1.3 x 10 to power of (-2) moles

D) 8.0 x 10 to power of (1) moles

E) 1.3 x 10 to power of (-1) moles





75) How many moles of silver atoms are there in 1.8 x 1020 atoms of silver?

A) 3.0 x 10-4 B) 3.0 x 102 C) 1.1 x 1044 D) 3.3 x 10-3





76) How many ammonium ions, NH with (superscript (cis_symbolcis_symbol) and, are there in 5.0 mol (NH4)2S?

A) 6.0 x 1024 B) 3.0 x 1024 C) 1.5 x 1025 D) 6.0 x 1025 E) 3.4 x 102





77) Butanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. If 1.0 mol of butanol contains 6.0 x 1024 atoms of hydrogen, what is the subscript for the hydrogen atom in C4H?O?

A) 6 B) 1 C) 8 D) 10 E) 4





78) How many hydrogen atoms are in 5 molecules of isopropyl alcohol, C3H7O?

A) 35 x (6.02 x 1023) B) 5

C) 35 D) 5 x (6.02 x 1023)





79) Which of the following elements exists as a diatomic molecule?

A) aluminum B) neon C) nitrogen D) sulfur E) lithium





80) Which of the following is not a true statement concerning the gram atomic mass?

A) The gram atomic mass is the mass of 6.02 x 1023 atoms of any monatomic element.

B) The gram atomic mass is the mass of one mole of atoms.

C) The gram atomic mass is the number of grams of an element that is numerically equal to the atomic mass in amu.

D) The gram atomic mass is found by checking the periodic table.

E) The gram atomic mass is 12 g for magnesium.





81) What is the mass in grams of 5.90 mol C8H18?

A) 3.55 x 1024 g

B) 0.0512 g

C) 19.4 g

D) 673 g

E) 389 g





82) How many moles of CaBr2 are there in 5.0 grams of CaBr2?

A) 4.2 x 10-2 mol

B) 3.0 x 1024 mol

C) 2.5 x 10-2 mol

D) 1.0 x 103 mol

E) 4.0 x 101 mol





83) What is the percent composition of chromium in BaCrO4?

A) 20.5% B) 4.87% C) 54.2% D) 25.2% E) 9.47%





84) What is the mass of oxygen in 250 g of sulfuric acid, H2SO4?

A) 0.65 g B) 16 g C) 41 g D) 3.9 g E) 160 g





85) If 20.0 grams of Ca combines completely with 16.0 grams of S to form a compound, what is the percent composition of Ca in the compound?

A) 20.0% B) 44.4% C) 80.0% D) 55.6% E) 1.25%





86) What information is needed to calculate the percent composition of a compound?

A) the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its density

B) the density of the compound and Avogadro's number

C) the formula of the compound and the gram atomic mass of its elements

D) the formula of the compound and its density

E) the weight of the sample to be analyzed and its molar volume





87) What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40% sulfur and 60% oxygen by weight?

A) SO2 B) SO C) S2O3 D) SO3 E) S6O4





88) What is the empirical formula of a substance that is 53.5% C, 15.5% H, and 31.1% N by weight?

A) C2H7N

B) CH4N7

C) C3HN2

D) C4H14N2

E) C4.5H15.5N2.2





89) Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning empirical and molecular formulas?

A) The empirical formula of a compound can be triple its molecular formula.

B) Several compounds can have the same empirical formula, but have different molecular formulas.

C) If the molecular formula of hydrogen peroxide is H2O2, its empirical formula is HO.

D) The molecular formula of a compound can be some whole-number multiple of its empirical formula.

E) The molecular formula of a compound can be the same as its empirical formula.





90) What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?
Al2(SO4)3(aq) + KOH(aq) rightarrow Al(OH)3(aq) + K2SO4(aq)

A) 4,6,2,3 B) 2,3,1,1 C) 1,3,2,3 D) 2,12,4,6 E) 1,6,2,3





91) What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?
Cr(s) + Fe(NO3)2(aq) rightarrow Fe(s) + Cr(NO3)3(aq)

A) 4,6,6,2 B) 2,3,1,2 C) 1,3,3,1 D) 2,3,3,2 E) 2,3,2,3





92) When the equation, Fe + Cl2 rightarrow FeCl3, is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl2?

A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 1





93) Which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning what happens in all chemical reactions?

A) New atoms are formed as products.

B) The starting materials are named reactants.

C) The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed.

D) The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed.

E) In a word equation representing a chemical reaction, the reactants are written on the left and the products on the right.





94) A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following?

A) the physical states of the substances

B) the reactants on the left, the products on the right

C) the relative amounts of reactants and products

D) the correct formulas of the reactants and products

E) an arrow connecting the reactants to the products





95) Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy the _____.

A) law of conservation of mass B) principle of Avogadro

C) law of multiple proportions D) law of definite proportions





96) In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of _____.

A) atoms

B) molecules

C) coefficients

D) subscripts

E) moles





97) When potassium hydroxide and barium chloride react, potassium chloride and barium hydroxide are formed. The balanced equation for this reaction is _____.

A) KOH + BaCl rightarrow KCl + BaOH

B) 2KOH + BaCl2 rightarrow 2KCl + Ba(OH)2

C) KOH + BaCl2 rightarrow KCl2 + BaOH

D) 2KOH + 2BaCl2 rightarrow 2KCl2 + 2Ba(OH)2

E) KH + BaCl rightarrow KCl + BaH





98) If a combination reaction takes place between potassium and chlorine, what is the product?

A) K2Cl B) KCl C) KCl2 D) PCl E) PCl2





99) Write a balanced equation to represent the decomposition of lead(IV) oxide.

A) 2PbO rightarrow 2Pb + O2

B) PbO2 rightarrow Pb + 2O

C) Pb2O rightarrow 2Pb + O

D) PbO2 rightarrow Pb + O2

E) PbO rightarrow Pb + O2





100) Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the decomposition of a simple binary compound?

A) The reactant could be an ionic or a molecular compound.

B) The products are the constituent elements.

C) The reactant is a single substance.

D) The products are unpredictable.

E) Energy is usually required.





101) In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is _____.

A) hydrogen

B) a metal

C) oxygen

D) a binary ionic compound

E) nitrogen





102) The calculation of quantities in chemical equations is called _____.

A) percent composition

B) stoichiometry

C) percent yield

D) dimensional analysis

E) accuracy and precision





103) What is conserved in the reaction shown below?
H2(g) + Cl2(g) Â 2HCl(g)

A) only mass, moles, and molecules

B) only mass, moles, molecules and volume

C) only mass

D) only mass and moles





104) In every chemical reaction, _____.

A) mass and molecules are conserved

B) moles and molecules are conserved

C) moles and liters are conserved

D) mass and atoms are conserved

E) mass and liters are conserved





105) Which of these is an INCORRECT interpretation of this balanced equation?
2S(s) + 3O2(g) Â 2SO3(g)

A) 2 mol S + 3 mol O2 Â 2 mol SO3

B) 2 g S + 3 g O2 Â 2 g SO3

C) 2 atoms S + 3 molecules O2 Â 2 molecules SO3

D) none of the above





106) How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?
2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) Â 3Fe(s) + Al2O3(s)

A) 1.2 mol B) 1.6 mol C) 0.8 mol D) 4.8 mol E) 2.4 mol





107) How many moles of glucose, C6H12O6, can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available?
C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) Â 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

A) 301 mol B) 0.938 mol C) 1.67 mol D) 53.3 mol E) 60.0 mol





108) Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum?
2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(aq) Â Al2(SO4)3(aq) + 3H2(g)

A) 22.5 mol B) 2710 mol C) 10.0 mol D) 15.0 mol E) 0.100 mol





109) When glucose is consumed it reacts with oxygen in the body to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy. How many grams of carbon dioxide would be produced if 45 g of C6H12O6completely reacted with oxygen?

A) 66 g B) 12 000 g C) 11 g D) 1.8 g E) 1.5 g





110) How many moles of H3PO4 are produced when 71.0 g P4O10 reacts completely to form H3PO4?
P4O10(s) + 6H2O(l) Â 4H3PO4(aq)

A) 0.063 5 mol

B) 16.0 mol

C) 1.00 mol

D) 4.00 mol

E) 98.0 mol





111) The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO2 is formed?
2Pb(NO3)2(s) Â 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

A) 2.00 g B) 32.0 g C) 2.88 g D) 1.00 g E) 46.0 g





112) How many grams of beryllium are needed to produce 36.0 g of hydrogen? (Assume an excess of water.)
Be(s) + 2H2O(l) Â Be(OH)2 (aq) + H2(g)

A) 4.00 g B) 648 g C) 162 g D) 324 g E) 36.0 g





113) Metallic copper is formed when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate. How many grams of metallic copper can be obtained when 54.0 g of Al reacts with 319 g of CuSO4?
2Al + 3CuSO4 Â Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu

A) 21.2 g B) 381 g C) 162 g D) 957 g E) 127 g





114) Lead nitrate can be decomposed by heating. What is the percent yield of the decomposition reaction if 9.9 g Pb(NO3)2 is heated to give 5.5 g of PbO?
2Pb(NO3)2(s) Â 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)

A) 67% B) 56% C) 82% D) 44% E) 18%





115) When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up is called the _____.

A) limiting reagent

B) catalytic reagent

C) excess reagent

D) determining reagent

E) reactive reagent





116) When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that will form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the _____.

A) minimum yield

B) theoretical yield

C) percent composition

D) actual yield

E) percent yield





117) For a given chemical reaction, the theoretical yield is _____ greater than the actual yield.

A) always B) never C) sometimes





118) Which of the following is not a reason why actual yield is less than theoretical yield?

A) impure reactants present B) loss of product during purification

C) competing side reactions D) conservation of mass





119) How many joules are there in 148 calories? (1 cal = 4.18 J)

A) 6.61 J B) 35.4 J C) 148 J D) 3320 J E) 619 J





120) How much heat does it take to warm 16.0 g of pure water from 90.0¶C to 100.0¶C? (specific heat of water = 4.18 J/g x ¶C)

A) 66.9 joules B) 669 joules C) 16.0 joules D) 160 joules





121) When 45 g of an alloy is dropped into 100.0 g of water at 25¶C, the final temperature is 37¶C. What is the specific heat of the alloy?

A) 0.423 B) 9.88 C) 48.8 D) 1.77





122) What is the specific heat of olive oil if it takes approximately 420 J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 g of olive oil by 30¶C?

A) equal to the specific heat of water B) greater than the specific heat of water

C) less than the specific heat of water D) Not enough information given.





123) When cooking food with natural gas, the energy comes from _____.

A) kinetic energy in the gas

B) the volume of the gas

C) chemical potential energy of the gas molecules

D) the pressure of the gas





124) A piece of metal is heated, then submerged in cool water. Which statement below describes what happens?

A) The temperature of the metal will increase.

B) The temperature of the water will increase and the temperature of the metal will decrease.

C) The temperature of the water will decrease.

D) The temperature of the water will decrease and the temperature of the metal will increase.

E) The temperature of the water will increase.





125) Two objects are sitting next to each other in direct sunlight. Object A gets hotter than object B.

A) Both objects have the same specific heat.

B) Object A has a higher specific heat than object B.

C) Object A has a lower specific heat than object B.







1) Answer: D





2) Answer: A





3) Answer: B





4) Answer: D





5) Answer: C





6) Answer: B





7) Answer: E





8) Answer: C





9) Answer: A





10) Answer: A





11) Answer: D





12) Answer: A





13) Answer: B





14) Answer: D





15) Answer: D





16) Answer: C





17) Answer: C





18) Answer: C





19) Answer: C





20) Answer: A





21) Answer: B





22) Answer: A





23) Answer: A





24) Answer: D





25) Answer: B





26) Answer: A





27) Answer: A





28) Answer: C





29) Answer: C





30) Answer: C





31) Answer: B





32) Answer: E





33) Answer: A





34) Answer: D





35) Answer: B





36) Answer: C





37) Answer: D





38) Answer: D





39) Answer: B





40) Answer: C





41) Answer: D





42) Answer: A





43) Answer: B





44) Answer: A





45) Answer: B





46) Answer: C





47) Answer: E





48) Answer: C





49) Answer: A





50) Answer: D





51) Answer: C





52) Answer: C





53) Answer: A





54) Answer: B





55) Answer: D





56) Answer: D





57) Answer: A





58) Answer: A





59) Answer: B





60) Answer: B





61) Answer: B





62) Answer: E





63) Answer: B





64) Answer: C





65) Answer: B





66) Answer: C





67) Answer: E





68) Answer: A





69) Answer: A





70) Answer: A





71) Answer: D





72) Answer: C





73) Answer: B





74) Answer: D





75) Answer: A





76) Answer: A





77) Answer: D





78) Answer: C





79) Answer: C





80) Answer: E





81) Answer: D





82) Answer: C





83) Answer: A





84) Answer: E





85) Answer: D





86) Answer: C





87) Answer: D





88) Answer: A





89) Answer: A





90) Answer: E





91) Answer: D





92) Answer: A





93) Answer: A





94) Answer: C





95) Answer: A





96) Answer: A





97) Answer: B





98) Answer: B





99) Answer: D





100) Answer: D





101) Answer: C





102) Answer: B





103) Answer: B





104) Answer: D





105) Answer: B





106) Answer: C





107) Answer: C





108) Answer: A





109) Answer: A





110) Answer: C





111) Answer: A





112) Answer: C





113) Answer: E





114) Answer: C





115) Answer: A





116) Answer: B





117) Answer: A





118) Answer: D





119) Answer: E





120) Answer: B





121) Answer: D





122) Answer: C





123) Answer: C





124) Answer: B





125) Answer: C




[edit]

[1/7/2002 2:02:28 PM | Mr. Fasciano]

The following questions are similar to questions on the final exam. You should work each one out and DON'T JUST MEMORIZE ANSWERS.


1. It is estimated that uranium is relatively common in the earth's crust, occurring in amounts of 4 g/metric ton.
A metric ton is 1000 kg. At this concentration, what mass of uranium is present in 1.0 mg of the earth's crust?
A) 4 nanograms
B) 4 micrograms
C) 4 milligrams
D) 4 ´ 10–5 g
E) 4 centigrams


2. Which of the following metric relationships is incorrect?
A) 1 microliter = 10–6 liters
B) 1 megagram = 106 grams
C) 1 millimeter = 103 meters
D) 1 kilogram = 103 grams
E) 100 centimeters = 1 meter


3. A set of tested hypotheses that gives an overall explanation of some natural phenomenon is called a(n)
A) observation.
B) measurement.
C) theory.
D) natural law.
E) experiment.


4. Express 784000000 in exponential notation.
A) 7.84 ´ 106
B) 7.84 ´ 108
C) 78.4 ´ 107
D) 784 ´ 106
E) 784 ´ 107


5. A titration was performed to find the concentration of hydrochloric acid with the following results:
Trial Molarity
1 1.25 ± 0.01
2 1.24 ± 0.01
3 1.26 ± 0.01
The actual concentration of HCl was determined to be 1.000 M; the results of the titration are:
A) both accurate and precise.
B) accurate but imprecise.
C) precise but inaccurate.
D) both inaccurate and imprecise.
E) accuracy and precision are impossible to determine with the available information.


6. The amount of uncertainty in a measured quantity is determined by:
A) both the skill of the observer and the limitations of the measuring instrument.
B) neither the skill of the observer nor the limitations of the measuring instrument.
C) the limitations of the measuring instrument only.
D) the skill of the observer only.


7. A scientist obtains the number 1250.37986 on a calculator. If this number actually has four (4) significant figures, how should it be written?
A) 1251
B) 1250.3799
C) 1250.4
D) 1.250 ´ 103
E) 1.250 ´ 10–3


8. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.0322?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 2
E) 0


9. A piece of indium with a mass of 16.6 g is submerged in 46.3 cm3 of water in a graduated cylinder. The water level increases to 48.6 cm3. The correct value for the density of indium from these data is:
A) 7.217 g/cm3
B) 7.2 g/cm3
C) 0.14 g/cm3
D) 0.138 g/cm3
E) more than 0.1 g/cm3 away from any of these values.


10. A metric unit for mass is
A) pound.
B) kilogram.
C) ton.
D) ounce.
E) meter.


11. Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following:

A) 17.5
B) 18
C) 17
D) 20
E) 17.48


12. Convert 974036 mm to km.
A) 9744036 km
B) 974.036 km
C) 974036000 km
D) 0.000974036 km
E) 0.974036 km


13. The volume of 65 L equals
A) 65 dm3
B) 65000 cm3
C) 650 dm3
D) 650 cm3
E) 65 dm3 and 65000 cm3


14. How many significant figures are there in the number 0.0006042?
A) 7
B) 3
C) 8
D) 4
E) 0


15. Convert 16.8 lb to g. (1 lb = 453.6 g)
A) 762.0 g
B) 3.70 ´ 104 g
C) 76.2 g
D) 7621 g
E) 7620 g





[edit]

[12/13/2001 3:26:37 PM | Mr. Fasciano]
The next major exam is a week from today, Dec 20, 2001.
This exam primarily covers chapters 8 and 9. There will be some review on the test. Primarily naming chemical compounds from their formula and vice versa. You also must be able to balance reactions.
STUDY GUIDE FOR EXAM 4
1. Know the definition of AMU and be able to convert from amu to grams and vice versa.
2. Be able to calculate the average ATOMIC MASS from a weighted average the isotopes given percent abundances.
3. Be able to convert from mass to moles to molecules to atoms and vice versa.
4. Be able to calculate the molar mass of a compound using the periodic table.
5. Be able to calculate the empirical and molecular formulas given either the % composition or the masses of the individual elements.
6. Be able to interpret the molecular and mass information given in a balanced chemical equation.
7. Be able to use a balanced chemical equation to determine the molar relationships between reactants and products.
8. Understand the relationship between masses of reactants and products in a chemical equation.
9. Be able to recognize (figure out) the LIMITING REACTANT in a chemical reaction.
10. Given the masses of the reactants be able to find the masses of all the products and masses of any leftover reactant.
11. Be able to determine the PERCENT YIELD in a chemical reaction given the actual amount produced and the mass of the reactants.

START STUDYING NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! START STUDYING NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!START STUDYING NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!START STUDYING NOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

[edit]

[12/13/2001 1:50:54 PM | Mr. Fasciano]
Stoichiometry of Magnesium Oxide Lab.

Answers to pre-lab questions:
1. a) % Mg = 60.3 %
b) % O = 39.7 %

2. 3.37 g

3. 93.5%



[edit]

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